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Let $(X_i)$ be i.i.d. random variables with mean $\mu$ and finite variance. Then $$\dfrac{X_1 + \dots + X_n}{n} \to \mu \text{ weakly }$$ I have the proof here: What I don't understand is, why it
Has anyone asked a question on math.stackexchange and gotten rude/ condescending answers, for not knowing enough about the subject, and got disheartened from asking math questions anymore? - Quora
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